a complete false statement. If the invader of China could only disrupt the cultural developments of the Chinese culture (as opposed to destory it) because they were simply barbarians without developed culture, how can he explain the down fall of Roman empire? It was overrun by the Barbarian equally without much deep rooted culture. Furthermore, does he even know the causes to the later upsurge of the barbarian invasion to the West Roman empire? How does it related to China?